a couple weeks ago i was listening to the history of Websters dictionary how everything was created in his first dictionary from a biblical perspective.
i wonder what his intellectual definitions of fornication and bible verses that used the greek word Pornea was actually defined as and annotated. ? (if im using that word correctly)Who has a first edition Websters' Dictionary access? to define the biblical use of pornea and fornication?
Webster's dictionary is an inferior bastardisation of the English language.Who has a first edition Websters' Dictionary access? to define the biblical use of pornea and fornication?
Is this an abstract historical question or a matter of fishing for a massive appeal to authority fallacy fail? Noah Webster's opinions and twenty five cents will not get a cup of coffee at the library.Who has a first edition Websters' Dictionary access? to define the biblical use of pornea and fornication?
You can use the babylon for this purpose. It's the best translator in my opinion: http://babylon.gnds.info/?l=us
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